[Jan-2026] Download Real ISC CCSP Exam Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 240
Which of the following is the MOST important requirement and guidance for testing during an audit?
- A. Stakeholders
- B. Management
- C. Shareholders
- D. Regulations
Answer: D
Explanation:
During any audit, regulations are the most important factor and guidelines for what must be tested. Although the requirements from management, stakeholders, and shareholders are also important, regulations are not negotiable and pose the biggest risk to any organization for compliance failure.
NEW QUESTION # 241
Which type of testing tends to produce the best and most comprehensive results for discovering system vulnerabilities?
- A. Pen
- B. Dynamic
- C. Static
- D. Vulnerability
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 242
Which of the following is the primary purpose of an SOC 3 report?
- A. HIPAA compliance
- B. Compliance with PCI/DSS
- C. Absolute assurances
- D. Seal of approval
Answer: D
Explanation:
The SOC 3 report is more of an attestation than a full evaluation of controls associated with a service provider.
NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following is a method for apportioning resources that involves setting maximum usage amounts for all tenants/customers within the environment?
Response:
- A. Limits
- B. Reservations
- C. Shares
- D. Cancellations
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 244
Which of the cloud deployment models offers the easiest initial setup and access for the cloud customer?
- A. Hybrid
- B. Community
- C. Public
- D. Private
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because the public cloud model is available to everyone, in most instances all a customer will need to do to gain access is set up an account and provide a credit card number through the service's web portal. No additional contract negotiations, agreements, or specific group memberships are typically needed to get started.
NEW QUESTION # 245
Your organization is developing software for wide use by the public. You have decided to test it in a cloud environment, in a PaaS model. Which of the following should be of particular concern to your organization for this situation?
- A. Regulatory compliance
- B. Vendor lock-in
- C. High-speed network connectivity
- D. Backdoors
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 246
Which one of the following threat types to applications and services involves the sending of requests that are invalid and manipulated through a user's client to execute commands on the application under the user's own credentials?
- A. Cross-site scripting
- B. Cross-site request forgery
- C. Injection
- D. Missing function-level access control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attack forces a client that a user has used to authenticate to an application to send forged requests under the user's own credentials to execute commands and requests that the application thinks are coming from a trusted client and user. Although this type of attack cannot be used to steal data directly because the attacker has no way of seeing the results of the commands, it does open other ways to compromise an application. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user's browser without going through validation processes. An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries.
NEW QUESTION # 247
Many tools and technologies are available for securing or monitoring data in transit within a data center, whether it is a traditional data center or a cloud.
Which of the following is NOT a technology for securing data in transit?
- A. DNSSEC
- B. HTTPS
- C. TLS
- D. VPN
Answer: A
Explanation:
DNSSEC is an extension of the normal DNS protocol that enables a system to verify the integrity of a DNS query resolution by signing it from the authoritative source and verifying the signing chain. It is not used for securing data transmissions or exchanges. HTTPS is the most common method for securing web service and data calls within a cloud, and TLS is the current standard for encrypting HTTPS traffic. VPNs are widely used for securing data transmissions and service access.
NEW QUESTION # 248
Your new CISO is placing increased importance and focus on regulatory compliance as your applications and systems move into cloud environments.
Which of the following would NOT be a major focus of yours as you develop a project plan to focus on regulatory compliance?
- A. Data in transit
- B. Data at rest
- C. Data custodian
- D. Data in use
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The jurisdictions where data is being stored, processed, or consumed are the ones that dictate the regulatory frameworks and compliance requirements, regardless of who the data owner or custodian might be. The other concepts for protecting data would all play a prominent role in regulatory compliance with a move to the cloud environment. Each concept needs to be evaluated based on the new configurations as well as any potential changes in jurisdiction or requirements introduced with the move to a cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 249
Which of the following is the best example of a key component of regulated PII?
- A. Audit rights of subcontractors
- B. Mandatory breach reporting
- C. PCI DSS
- D. Items that should be implemented
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Mandatory breach reporting is the best example of regulated PII components. The rest are generally considered components of contractual PII.
NEW QUESTION # 250
Which value refers to the percentage of production level restoration needed to meet BCDR objectives?
- A. RTO
- B. RSL
- C. RPO
- D. SRE
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The recovery service level (RSL) is a percentage measure of the total typical production service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure.
NEW QUESTION # 251
Each of the following are dependencies that must be considered when reviewing the BIA after cloud migration except:
- A. The cloud provider's vendors
- B. The cloud provider's utilities
- C. The cloud provider's resellers
- D. The cloud provider's suppliers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud provider's resellers are a marketing and sales mechanism, not an operational dependency that could affect the security of a cloud customer.
NEW QUESTION # 252
Which regulatory system pertains to the protection of healthcare data?
- A. HIPAA
- B. HFCA
- C. HITECH
- D. HAS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets stringent requirements in the United States for the protection of healthcare records.
NEW QUESTION # 253
You are working for a cloud service provider and receive an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of your customers.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to take first?
- A. Notify the customer
- B. Take a shapshot of the virtual machines
- C. Copy the data
- D. Escrow the encryption keys
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a cloud service provider receives an eDiscovery order pertaining to one of their customers, the first action they must take is to notify the customer. This allows the customer to be aware of what was received, as well as to conduct a review to determine if any challenges are necessary or warranted. Taking snapshots of virtual machines, copying data, and escrowing encryption keys are all processes involved in the actual collection of data and should not be performed until the customer has been notified of the request.
NEW QUESTION # 254
Which protocol, as a part of TLS, handles the actual secure communications and transmission of data?
- A. Record
- B. Handshake
- C. Negotiation
- D. Transfer
Answer: A
Explanation:
The TLS record protocol is the actual secure communications method for transmitting data; it's responsible for encrypting and authenticating packets throughout their transmission between the parties, and in some cases it also performs compression. The TLS handshake protocol is what negotiates and establishes the TLS connection between two parties and enables the secure communications channel to then handle data transmissions. Negotiation and transfer are not protocols under TLS.
NEW QUESTION # 255
What concept does the "A" represent in the DREAD model?
- A. Authorization
- B. Authentication
- C. Affected users
- D. Affinity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Affected users refers to the percentage of users who would be impacted by a successful exploit.
Scoring ranges from 0, which means no users are impacted, to 10, which means all users are impacted.
NEW QUESTION # 256
The goals of SIEM solution implementation include all of the following, except:
- A. Performance enhancement
- B. Centralization of log streams
- C. Dashboarding
- D. Trend analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
SIEM does not intend to provide any enhancement of performance; in fact, a SIEM solution may decrease performance because of additional overhead. All the rest are goals of SIEM implementations.
NEW QUESTION # 257
Where is an XML firewall most commonly and effectively deployed in the environment?
- A. Between the IPS and firewall
- B. Between the firewall and application server
- C. Between the application and data layers
- D. Between the presentation and application layers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An XML firewall is most commonly deployed in line between the firewall and application server to validate XML code before it reaches the application. An XML firewall is intended to validate XML before it reaches the application. Placing the XML firewall between the presentation and application layers, between the firewall and IPS, or between the application and data layers would not serve the intended purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 258
Which of the following roles involves the provisioning and delivery of cloud services?
- A. Cloud service operations manager
- B. Cloud service deployment manager
- C. Cloud service manager
- D. Cloud service business manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The cloud service manager is responsible for the delivery of cloud services, the provisioning of cloud services, and the overall management of cloud services.
NEW QUESTION # 259
FM-200 has all the following properties except ___________.
Response:
- A. It's nontoxic at levels used for fire suppression
- B. It's gaseous at room temperature
- C. It may deplete the Earth's ozone layer
- D. It does not leave a film or coagulant after use
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 260
Implementing baselines on systems would take an enormous amount of time and resources if the staff had to apply them to each server, and over time, it would be almost impossible to keep all the systems in sync on an ongoing basis.
Which of the following is NOT a package that can be used for implementing and maintaining baselines across an enterprise?
- A. SCCM
- B. Puppet
- C. Chef
- D. GitHub
Answer: D
Explanation:
GitHub is a software development platform that serves as a code repository and versioning system. It is solely used for software development and would not be appropriate for applying baselines to systems. Puppet is an open-source configuration management tool that runs on many platforms and can be used to apply and maintain baselines. The Software Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) was developed by Microsoft for managing systems across large groups of servers. Chef is also a system for maintaining large groups of systems throughout an enterprise.
NEW QUESTION # 261
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