Provide CompTIA 220-1202 Dumps Updated Nov 21, 2025 With 158 QA's
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NEW QUESTION # 11
You are configuring a home network for a customer. The customer has requested the ability to access a Windows PC remotely, and needs all chat and optional functions to work in their game console.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-down menus to complete the network configuration for the customer. Each option may only be used once, and not all options will be used.
Then, click the + sign to place each device in its appropriate location.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Wireless AP LAN
Firewall Screened Subnet
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation:
The completed configuration:
1. Wireless AP (LAN side)
1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1
2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK
2. Router (port-forward rule)
1. Allow TCP Any 3389
This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.
3. Firewall (screened subnet side)
1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1
4. Device placement
1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).
2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).
3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).
The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.
The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection.
Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:
Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.
Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.
Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 12
A technician installs VPN client software that has a software bug from the vendor.
After the vendor releases an update to the software, the technician attempts to reinstall the software but keeps getting an error message that the network adapter for the VPN already exists.
Which of the following should the technician do next to mitigate this issue?
- A. Update the network adapter's firmware.
- B. Delete hidden network adapters.
- C. Map the network adapter to the new software.
- D. Run the latest OS security updates.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 13
A company would like to deploy baseline images to new computers as they are started up on the network.
Which of the following boot processes should the company use for this task?
- A. PXE
- B. ISO
- C. USB
- D. Secure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows workstations to boot over the network and download an OS image from a server. It is ideal for automating mass deployments using baseline images across many machines without the need for physical media.
A: An ISO is a disk image file but requires mounting or physical media.
B: Secure Boot is a security feature, not a method of deploying OS images.
C: USB requires manual installation and is not suitable for automated deployment at scale.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.
Study Guide Section: Remote installation methods - PXE boot deployment
NEW QUESTION # 14
An employee is trying to connect their company laptop to airport Wi-Fi. A pop-up with the airport logo appeared and was closed quickly. The internet does not work. What should a help desk technician suggest?
- A. Look for a wall socket with RJ45 and try to connect
- B. Contact the airport IT department
- C. Reconnect to the network and read the pop-up carefully
- D. Tell the employee that company policy prohibits connection to public Wi-Fi
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Public Wi-Fi networks often usecaptive portals, which require accepting terms or authenticating via the pop- up page before full access is granted. Closing it prematurely stops full connection.
FromTravis Everett - All-in-One Exam Guide:
"Captive portals intercept the first HTTP request and present a login or acknowledgment screen. Without completing it, access is denied."
NEW QUESTION # 15
Multiple users clicked a phishing link from a compromised email account. The security team isolates and removes the threat. Then, the management team provides security awareness training to the company. What step is this?
- A. Update the antivirus software.
- B. Perform additional scans.
- C. Compile lessons learned.
- D. Provide user education.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is part of theuser educationstep after a security incident to prevent future occurrences.
FromQuentin Docter - Complete Study Guide:
"User education and awareness is a crucial part of preventing phishing attacks. After an incident, it is vital to train users on recognizing suspicious messages." .
NEW QUESTION # 16
A technician uses AI to draft a document about new software benefits. Upon reading, the technician sees factually incorrect info. What term best describes this?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Data privacy
- C. Appropriate use
- D. Plagiarism
Answer: A
Explanation:
In AI terminology,hallucinationrefers to generated output that appears plausible but is factually incorrect.
FromQuentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:
"AI hallucination describes output that is fluent and coherent but includes information that is entirely fabricated or inaccurate."
NEW QUESTION # 17
A technician is assigned to offboard a user. Which of the following are common tasks on an offboarding checklist? (Choose two.)
- A. Suspend the user's email account.
- B. Deactivate the user's key fobs for door access.
- C. Add the MAC address of the user's computer to a blocklist.
- D. Turn off the network ports underneath the user's desk.
- E. Quarantine the hard drive in the user's laptop.
- F. Purge all PII associated with the user.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
User offboarding involves disabling the departing user's access to company systems and facilities. Two key tasks typically include:
* Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B).
* Suspending or disabling the user's email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).
A: Quarantining a hard drive is not standard unless malware or legal issues are involved.
C: Purging PII must follow legal retention policies; it's not typically an immediate offboarding task.
E: Disabling network ports may be relevant in some cases but is not a standard offboarding step.
F: Blocking MAC addresses is not typical unless the device is considered a security threat.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement proper documentation and offboarding procedures.
Study Guide Section: User lifecycle management - onboarding and offboarding tasks
NEW QUESTION # 18
A technician verifies that a malware incident occurred on some computers in a small office. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- A. Educate the end users
- B. Update the anti-malware and scan the computers
- C. Disable System Restore
- D. Quarantine the infected systems
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Once a malware incident has been confirmed, the immediate next step is to contain the threat. Quarantining infected systems prevents the malware from spreading to other devices and isolates the malicious code for further analysis or remediation.
B: Educating end users is important but occurs later in the incident response process.
C: Disabling System Restore is part of cleanup, not containment.
D: Updating and scanning should occur after the system is quarantined to prevent further infection or spread.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.
Study Guide Section: Malware removal best practices - Step 2: Quarantine the infected system
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following is the quickest way to move from Windows 10 to Windows 11 without losing data?
- A. Image deployment
- B. Using gpupdate
- C. Clean install
- D. In-place upgrade
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
An in-place upgrade is the fastest and most efficient way to upgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 11 while keeping all user data, applications, and settings intact. This method is often used when the hardware meets Windows 11 requirements and no system reconfiguration is necessary.
A: gpupdate is used to refresh Group Policy settings - unrelated to OS upgrades.
B: Image deployment typically replaces the current OS and may not retain user data unless specifically customized.
C: A clean install requires formatting the drive and starting fresh, which removes all data.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.
Study Guide Section: In-place upgrade vs. clean install methods
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following is used to apply corporate restrictions on an Apple device?
- A. VPN configuration
- B. Apple ID
- C. App Store
- D. Management profile
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions,Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They're critical for managing devices in a business environment.
A: The App Store allows software downloads but doesn't control policies.
B: VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.
C: Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security tools and MDM features.
Study Guide Section: Mobile device management and configuration profiles (Apple/iOS)
NEW QUESTION # 21
An end user wants to have a sales printer added to their computer. The printer is on the domain. Which of the following is the best method for the technician to add the printer?
- A. Connect the laptop to the printer via USB
- B. Go to the print server and select the printer name
- C. Connect to the printer via Bluetooth
- D. Go to Local Users and Groups to add the printer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In a domain environment, printers are typically deployed via a print server. Users can browse available printers on the server and install them directly.
All-in-One Exam Guidementions:
"In a corporate domain, printers are managed via a centralized print server. Users can select the desired printer from the server's shared list."
NEW QUESTION # 22
A security administrator teaches all of an organization's staff members to use BitLocker To Go. Which of the following best describes the reason for this training?
- A. To ensure that all removable media is password protected in case of loss or theft
- B. To enforce VPN connectivity to be encrypted by hardware modules
- C. To configure all laptops to use the TPM as an encryption factor for hard drives
- D. To enable Secure Boot and a BIOS-level password to prevent configuration changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
BitLocker To Go is a Microsoft encryption feature specifically designed for removable drives such as USB flash drives and external hard drives. It allows users to protect the data on these devices by requiring a password to decrypt the contents, thereby preventing unauthorized access in the event the device is lost or stolen.
A is correct because BitLocker To Go is directly tied to password-protecting removable media.
B and C are unrelated to BitLocker To Go; Secure Boot and VPN encryption are entirely different security layers.
D applies to BitLocker (not BitLocker To Go) and full disk encryption on internal drives using TPM.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast common security measures and tools.
Study Guide Section: Encryption technologies (BitLocker, BitLocker To Go)
NEW QUESTION # 23
Users are reporting that an unsecured network is broadcasting with the same name as the normal wireless network. They are able to access the internet but cannot connect to the file share servers. Which of the following best describes this issue?
- A. Unreachable DNS server
- B. Rogue wireless access point
- C. Incorrect IP address
- D. Virtual local area network misconfiguration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
This scenario describes a rogue access point - a malicious or unauthorized wireless access point that uses the same SSID as the legitimate network. Users may connect to it unknowingly, which can result in limited network access, data interception, or redirection of traffic. The inability to reach internal file servers supports this being an unauthorized AP with no connection to internal resources.
A: A DNS issue would impact name resolution, not connectivity to file servers directly.
B: VLAN issues generally affect segmentation, not mimic SSID problems.
C: An incorrect IP address could cause connectivity issues, but not in the presence of a malicious AP broadcasting the same SSID.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast wireless and physical security threats.
Study Guide Section: Rogue access points and their detection
NEW QUESTION # 24
A user recently installed an application that accesses a database from a local server. When launching the application, it does not populate any information. Which of the following command-line tools is the best to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. ipconfig
- B. curl
- C. netstat
- D. nslookup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The scenario involves an application that should retrieve data from a local database server but is failing to do so. This likely indicates a problem in communication between the application and the database server (such as a network issue, port misconfiguration, or service unavailability). The correct troubleshooting approach involves testing the network/service connectivity between the client and the database.
Let's examine the options:
* A. ipconfig:This command displays IP configuration details for Windows systems, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. While useful for diagnosing general networkissues, it does not test service connectivity or the availability of a specific application port/service.
* B. nslookup:Used to query DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses. However, since the question references a local server (likely accessed via IP or static hostname), DNS is probably not involved. Also, it does not test application/service availability.
* C. netstat:Displays active TCP connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It helps determine whether the local system is listening for or maintaining any network connections, but it does not initiate a connection to test availability. It's diagnostic but not interactive for service testing.
* D. curl:This is the most appropriate tool for this scenario. curl is used to test connectivity to services over protocols like HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and more. If the application retrieves data via a web interface or API (common in database-driven applications), curl can be used to test if the application can successfully reach and retrieve data from the server. It provides immediate, testable feedback on whether the server and service are available and responsive.
Example usage:
curlhttp://localhost:8080/api/data
This command would test whether a local server's application programming interface (API) is available and responding on port 8080.
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:
* Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and support Windows OS issues.
* Objective 3.3: Use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and resolve issues.
* The CompTIA A+ Core 2 study guide references curl as a useful command-line utility for testing connectivity and troubleshooting application access to services.
NEW QUESTION # 25
What is found in an MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) for a battery backup?
- A. Voltage
- B. Configuration steps
- C. Installation instructions
- D. Emergency procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.
FromTravis Everett - CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:
"An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries."
NEW QUESTION # 26
A technician is troubleshooting an issue in which a service runs momentarily and stops at certain points in the process. The technician needs to determine the root cause of this issue. Which of the following tools should the technician use?
- A. Internet Options
- B. Event Viewer
- C. Process Explorer
- D. Task Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Event Viewer is the best tool to analyze the root cause of service failures in Windows. It provides detailed logs from system processes, including errors, warnings, and crash reports related to services and applications.
When a service starts and stops unexpectedly, Event Viewer will often record the cause, such as dependency failures or access violations.
B: Task Manager shows active processes but doesn't retain logs or causes of failure.
C: Internet Options is used for configuring browser settings, not troubleshooting services.
D: Process Explorer is powerful but more suited for live monitoring and detailed process trees, not post- failure log analysis.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common Windows OS problems.
Study Guide Section: Log file analysis using Event Viewer
NEW QUESTION # 27
A technician installs VPN client software that has a software bug from the vendor. After the vendor releases an update to the software, the technician attempts to reinstall the software but keeps getting an error message that the network adapter for the VPN already exists. Which of the following should the technician do next to mitigate this issue?
- A. Update the network adapter's firmware.
- B. Delete hidden network adapters.
- C. Map the network adapter to the new software.
- D. Run the latest OS security updates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
VPN clients often create virtual network adapters. If the software wasn't uninstalled properly or crashed during install, leftover (often hidden) virtual adapters can prevent reinstallation. The proper solution is to delete hidden network adapters using Device Manager (with "Show hidden devices" enabled).
A: OS updates won't fix a leftover driver or adapter issue.
B: Mapping an adapter to the software is not a standard or viable solution.
C: Firmware updates apply to physical adapters, not virtual VPN adapters.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Troubleshoot common Windows OS and network issues.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting network adapter conflicts and VPN client errors
NEW QUESTION # 28
A Windows 11 Home device is receiving constant pop-ups about an urgent need to update antivirus software to remove a detected threat. The user has been clicking the "X" button in the window frame but it always reappears. The pop-up includes an "OK" button to install the update and remove the threat. Which of the following should the user do next?
- A. Reinstall the Windows Operating System
- B. Run System File Checker
- C. Click the "OK" button to install the update
- D. Verify the current status and settings of protection measures
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
This is likely arogue antivirusor scareware tactic. The user shouldnot click "OK"and instead check Windows Security (or third-party antivirus) status and ensure real-time protection is enabled.
FromMark Soper - Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:
"Users should verify security center settings if receiving suspicious pop-ups. Clicking unknown software updates can install malware. It's safer to validate protection through legitimate system tools."
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following is the best way to distribute custom images to 800 devices that include four device vendor classes with two types of user groups?
- A. Use robocopy to move the files to each device
- B. Use a network-based remote installation tool
- C. Use a local image deployment tool for each device
- D. Use xcopy to clone the hard drives from one to another
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In enterprise environments, network-based deployment solutions (such as Windows Deployment Services or SCCM) allow administrators to push images across the network to hundreds of devices efficiently. These tools support hardware-specific drivers (for different vendor classes) and can accommodate user-group configurations using task sequences or answer files.
A: and B (xcopy and robocopy) are file-level tools and not designed for full OS image deployment.
C: Using local tools per device is inefficient for large-scale rollouts (800 devices).
D: Network-based deployment is the industry standard for this scale.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.
Study Guide Section: Deployment methods (including PXE boot, image deployment)
NEW QUESTION # 30
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