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Pass Cyber Technician (CCT) 212-82 Exam With 104 Questions
ECCouncil 212-82 exam is intended for individuals who are interested in IT security and want to gain knowledge in cybersecurity. 212-82 exam is ideal for professionals who want to enhance their skills in cybersecurity and gain a better understanding of the principles and practices of cybersecurity. 212-82 exam is an entry-level certification that provides a solid foundation in cybersecurity concepts and principles.
The ECCouncil 212-82 exam covers a wide range of topics, including network security, cryptography, and ethical hacking. Candidates will be expected to demonstrate their understanding of these topics through a series of multiple-choice questions and practical exercises.
NEW QUESTION # 11
Ryleigh, a system administrator, was instructed to perform a full back up of organizational data on a regular basis. For this purpose, she used a backup technique on a fixed date when the employees are not accessing the system i.e., when a service-level down time is allowed a full backup is taken.
Identify the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario.
- A. Warm backup
- B. Nearline backup
- C. Cold backup
- D. Hot backup
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cold backup is the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario. Cold backup is a backup technique that involves taking a full backup of data when the system or database is offline or shut down. Cold backup ensures that the data is consistent and not corrupted by any ongoing transactions or operations. Cold backup is usually performed on a fixed date or time when the service-level downtime is allowed or scheduled . Nearline backup is a backup technique that involves storing data on a medium that is not immediately accessible, but can be retrieved within a short time. Hot backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is online or running. Warm backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is partially online or running.
NEW QUESTION # 12
A web application www.movieabc.com was found to be prone to SQL injection attack. You are given a task to exploit the web application and fetch the user credentials. Select the UID which is mapped to user john in the database table.
Note:
Username: sam
Pass: test
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 13
Omar, an encryption specialist in an organization, was tasked with protecting low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IbT-based applications. For this purpose, he employed an algorithm for all lower-powered devices that used less power and resources without compromising device security.
identify the algorithm employed by Omar in this scenario.
- A. Quantum cryptography
- B. Elliptic curve cryptography
- C. Lightweight cryptography
- D. Homomorphic encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lightweight cryptography is an algorithm that is designed for low-complexity applications such as RFID tags, sensor-based applications, and other IoT-based applications. Lightweight cryptography uses less power and resources without compromising device security. Lightweight cryptography can be implemented using symmetric-key algorithms, asymmetric-key algorithms, or hash functions1.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Rhett, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to deploy an IDS solution on their corporate network to defend against evolving threats. For this purpose, Rhett selected an IDS solution that first creates models for possible intrusions and then compares these models with incoming events to make detection decisions.
Identify the detection method employed by the IDS solution in the above scenario.
- A. Signature recognition
- B. Not-use detection
- C. Protocol anomaly detection
- D. Anomaly detection
Answer: D
Explanation:
Anomaly detection is a type of IDS detection method that involves first creating models for possible intrusions and then comparing these models with incoming events to make a detection decision. It can detect unknown or zero-day attacks by looking for deviations from normal or expected behavior
NEW QUESTION # 15
You are a penetration tester working to test the user awareness of the employees of the client xyz. You harvested two employees' emails from some public sources and are creating a client-side backdoor to send it to the employees via email. Which stage of the cyber kill chain are you at?
- A. Weaponization
- B. Command and control
- C. Reconnaissance
- D. Exploitation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 16
Leilani, a network specialist at an organization, employed Wireshark for observing network traffic. Leilani navigated to the Wireshark menu icon that contains items to manipulate, display and apply filters, enable, or disable the dissection of protocols, and configure user-specified decodes.
Identify the Wireshark menu Leilani has navigated in the above scenario.
- A. Statistics
- B. Capture
- C. Main toolbar
- D. Analyze
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 17
Shawn, a forensic officer, was appointed to investigate a crime scene that had occurred at a coffee shop. As a part of investigation, Shawn collected the mobile device from the victim, which may contain potential evidence to identify the culprits.
Which of the following points must Shawn follow while preserving the digital evidence? (Choose three.)
- A. Turn the device ON if it is OFF
- B. Make sure that the device is charged
- C. Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON
- D. Never record the screen display of the device
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Turn the device ON if it is OFF, do not leave the device as it is if it is ON, and make sure that the device is charged are some of the points that Shawn must follow while preserving the digital evidence in the above scenario. Digital evidence is any information or data stored or transmitted in digital form that can be used in a legal proceeding or investigation. Digital evidence can be found on various devices, such as computers, mobile phones, tablets, etc. Preserving digital evidence is a crucial step in forensic investigation that involves protecting and maintaining the integrity and authenticity of digital evidence from any alteration or damage. Some of the points that Shawn must follow while preserving digital evidence are:
Turn the device ON if it is OFF: If the device is OFF, Shawn must turn it ON to prevent any data loss or encryption that may occur when the device is powered off. Shawn must also document any password or PIN required to unlock or access the device.
Do not leave the device as it is if it is ON: If the device is ON, Shawn must not leave it as it is or use it for any purpose other than preserving digital evidence. Shawn must also disable any network connections or communication features on the device, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, cellular data, etc., to prevent any remote access or deletion of data by unauthorized parties.
Make sure that the device is charged: Shawn must ensure that the device has enough battery power to prevent any data loss or corruption that may occur due to sudden shutdown or low battery. Shawn must also use a write blocker or a Faraday bag to isolate the device from any external interference or signals.
Never record the screen display of the device is not a point that Shawn must follow while preserving digital evidence. On contrary, Shawn should record or photograph the screen display of the device to capture any relevant information or messages that may appear on the screen. Recording or photographing the screen display of the device can also help document any changes or actions performed on the device during preservation.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server is about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions. Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson's machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?
- A. Quid pro quo
- B. Diversion theft
- C. Elicitation
- D. Phishing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quid pro quo is the social engineering technique that Johnson employed in the above scenario. Quid pro quo is a social engineering method that involves offering a service or a benefit in exchange for information or access. Quid pro quo can be used to trick victims into believing that they are receiving help or assistance from a legitimate source, while in fact they are compromising their security or privacy. In the scenario, Johnson performed quid pro quo by claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor and offering to help sibertech.org with a server issue, while in fact he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical information to Johnson's machine. If you want to learn more about social engineering techniques, you can check out these resources:
[1] A guide to different types of social engineering attacks and how to prevent them: [https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/what-is-social-engineering.html]
[2] A video that explains how quid pro quo works and how to avoid falling for it: [https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3Yy0gZ9xw8g]
[3] A quiz that tests your knowledge of social engineering techniques and scenarios: [https://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=social-engineering-quiz]
NEW QUESTION # 19
An organization hired a network operations center (NOC) team to protect its IT infrastructure from external attacks. The organization utilized a type of threat intelligence to protect its resources from evolving threats. The threat intelligence helped the NOC team understand how attackers are expected to perform an attack on the organization, identify the information leakage, and determine the attack goals as well as attack vectors.
Identify the type of threat intelligence consumed by the organization in the above scenario.
- A. Strategic threat intelligence
- B. Tactical threat intelligence
- C. Technical threat intelligence
- D. Operational threat intelligence
Answer: C
Explanation:
Technical threat intelligence is a type of threat intelligence that provides information about the technical details of specific attacks, such as indicators of compromise (IOCs), malware signatures, attack vectors, and vulnerabilities. Technical threat intelligence helps the NOC team understand how attackers are expected to perform an attack on the organization, identify the information leakage, and determine the attack goals as well as attack vectors. Technical threat intelligence is often consumed by security analysts, incident responders, and penetration testers who need to analyze and respond to active or potential threats.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Bob was recently hired by a medical company after it experienced a major cyber security breach. Many patients are complaining that their personal medical records are fully exposed on the Internet and someone can find them with a simple Google search. Bob's boss is very worried because of regulations that protect those dat a. Which of the following regulations is mostly violated?
- A. ISO 2002
- B. HIPPA/PHl
- C. PCIDSS
- D. Pll
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 21
The IH&R team in an organization was handling a recent malware attack on one of the hosts connected to the organization's network. Edwin, a member of the IH&R team, was involved in reinstating lost data from the backup medi a. Before performing this step, Edwin ensured that the backup does not have any traces of malware.
Identify the IH&R step performed by Edwin in the above scenario.
- A. Eradication
- B. Incident containment
- C. Recovery
- D. Notification
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 22
Walker, a security team member at an organization, was instructed to check if a deployed cloud service is working as expected. He performed an independent examination of cloud service controls to verify adherence to standards through a review of objective evidence. Further, Walker evaluated the services provided by the CSP regarding security controls, privacy impact, and performance.
Identify the role played by Walker in the above scenario.
- A. Cloud consumer
- B. Cloud provider
- C. Cloud carrier
- D. Cloud auditor
Answer: D
Explanation:
A cloud auditor is a role played by Walker in the above scenario. A cloud auditor is a third party who examines controls of cloud computing service providers. Cloud auditor performs an audit to verify compliance with the standards and expressed his opinion through a report89. A cloud provider is an entity that provides cloud services, such as infrastructure, platform, or software, to cloud consumers10. A cloud carrier is an entity that provides connectivity and transport of cloud services between cloud providers and cloud consumers10. A cloud consumer is an entity that uses cloud services for its own purposes or on behalf of another entity
NEW QUESTION # 23
Grace, an online shopping freak, has purchased a smart TV using her debit card. During online payment, Grace's browser redirected her from ecommerce website to a third-party payment gateway, where she provided her debit card details and OTP received on her registered mobile phone. After completing the transaction, Grace navigated to her online bank account and verified the current balance in her savings account.
Identify the state of data when it is being processed between the ecommerce website and the payment gateway in the above scenario.
- A. Data in use
- B. Data at rest
- C. Data in transit
- D. Data in inactive
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data in transit is the state of data when it is being processed between the ecommerce website and the payment gateway in the above scenario. Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another over a network, such as the internet, a LAN, or a WAN. Data in transit can be vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by unauthorized parties, so it needs to be protected by encryption, authentication, and other security measures . Data at rest is data that is stored on a device or a media, such as a hard drive, a flash drive, or a cloud storage. Data in active is data that is currently being accessed or modified by an application or a user. Data in use is data that is loaded into the memory of a device or a system for processing or computation.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Myles, a security professional at an organization, provided laptops for all the employees to carry out the business processes from remote locations. While installing necessary applications required for the business, Myles has also installed antivirus software on each laptop following the company's policy to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet.
Identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario.
- A. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1
- B. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5
- C. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2
- D. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS is a set of standards that aims to protect cardholder data and ensure secure payment transactions. PCI-DSS has 12 requirements that cover various aspects of security such as network configuration, data encryption, access control, vulnerability management, monitoring, and testing. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1 states that "Protect all systems against malware and regularly update anti-virus software or programs". In the above scenario, Myles followed this requirement by installing antivirus software on each laptop to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2 states that "Do not allow unauthorized outbound traffic from the cardholder data environment to the Internet". In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5 states that "Restrict inbound and outbound traffic to that which is necessary for the cardholder data environment". In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of inbound or outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1 states that "Implement a firewall configuration that restricts connections between publicly accessible servers and any system component storing cardholder data". In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of firewall configuration or publicly accessible servers or system components storing cardholder data.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Lorenzo, a security professional in an MNC, was instructed to establish centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote-access servers. For this purpose, he implemented a protocol that is based on the client-server model and works at the transport layer of the OSI model.
Identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario.
- A. SNMPv3
- B. POP3S
- C. IMAPS
- D. RADIUS
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, as it identifies the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for remote-access servers such as VPNs (Virtual Private Networks), wireless networks, or dial-up connections. RADIUS is based on the client-server model and works at the transport layer of the OSI model. RADIUS uses UDP (User Datagram Protocol) as its transport protocol and encrypts only user passwords in its messages. In the above scenario, Lorenzo implemented RADIUS to provide centralized AAA for remote-access servers. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) is a protocol that provides network management and monitoring for network devices such as routers, switches, servers, or printers. SNMPv3 is based on the manager-agent model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. SNMPv3 uses UDP as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) or DES (Data Encryption Standard). In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement SNMPv3 to provide network management and monitoring for network devices. Option C is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. POP3S (Post Office Protocol version 3 Secure) is a protocol that provides secure email access and retrieval for email clients from email servers. POP3S is based on the client-server model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. POP3S uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or TLS (Transport Layer Security). In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement POP3S to provide secure email access and retrieval for email clients from email servers. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the remote authentication protocol employed by Lorenzo in the above scenario. IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that provides secure email access and management for email clients from email servers. IMAPS is based on the client-server model and works at the application layer of the OSI model. IMAPS uses TCP as its transport protocol and encrypts all its messages with SSL or TLS. In the above scenario, Lorenzo did not implement IMAPS to provide secure email access and management for email clients from email servers.
NEW QUESTION # 26
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To prepare for the exam, candidates should have a strong understanding of computer networks, operating systems, and programming languages. They should also have experience working with cybersecurity tools and technologies.
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