[Apr 04, 2025] SK0-005 Exam Dumps - Try Best SK0-005 Exam Questions - PassSureExam
Verified SK0-005 exam dumps Q&As with Correct 470 Questions and Answers
CompTIA SK0-005 exam is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge of server administrators. It is designed to test their understanding of server hardware and software, troubleshooting, virtualization, storage and security, as well as disaster recovery and business continuity. SK0-005 exam is recommended for individuals who have at least 18-24 months of experience working with server hardware and software in an IT environment.
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam (SK0-005) is a vendor-neutral certification program that validates the skills and knowledge required to manage, secure, and troubleshoot server infrastructure. SK0-005 exam is designed for IT professionals who are involved in server administration, maintenance, and support. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification exam is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge in various areas, including server architecture, storage, security, networking, disaster recovery, and troubleshooting.
Learn about the difficulty of the CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam
CompTIA SK0-005 Certification Exam is one of the best certifications from CompTIA and hence the competition is tough. But at CompTIA, your talents and potential will get the right break and SK0-005 is the perfect means to this. You will find all the germane to platform skills out there. The only way you can clinch CompTIA SK0-005 certification is to get CompTIA Server+ certified which is an extensible exam.
The SK0-005 exam covers server architecture, server components, installing, configuring, upgrading, and performing preventive maintenance on servers, troubleshooting common server problems, and implementing RAID.
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NEW QUESTION # 220
An administrator is configuring the storage for a new database server, which will host databases that are mainly used for archival lookups. Which of the following storage types will yield the fastest database read performance?
- A. 15K rpm SCSI
- B. 10K rpm SATA
- C. NAS
- D. SSD
Answer: D
Explanation:
The storage type that will yield the fastest database read performance is SSD. SSD (Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory to store dat a. SSDs have no moving parts and can access data faster than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) that use spinning platters and magnetic heads. SSDs are especially suitable for databases that are mainly used for archival lookups, as they can provide faster response times and lower latency for read operations.
NEW QUESTION # 221
Which of the following licensing models is MOST appropriate tor a data center that has a variable daily equipment count?
- A. Per server
- B. Per user
- C. Pet site
- D. Per core
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A per core licensing model is based on the number of processor cores in a server. This model is suitable for a data center that has a variable daily equipment count, as it allows for scaling up or down the number of cores as needed. A per core licensing model also provides better performance and efficiency than other models.
Verified References: [Per Core Licensing and Basic Definitions]
NEW QUESTION # 222
A technician learns users are unable to tog in to a Linux server with known-working LDAP credentials. The technician logs in to the server with a local account and confirms the system is functional can communicate over the network, and is configured correctly However, the server log has entries regarding Kerberos errors. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of the issue?
- A. The system clock is off by more than five minutes
- B. A local firewall is blocking authentication requests.
- C. The server has no access to the LDAP host
- D. The users have expired passwords
Answer: A
Explanation:
Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that uses tickets to allow clients and servers to prove their identity to each other. Kerberos relies on accurate time synchronization between the parties involved, as the tickets have expiration dates and timestamps. If the system clock of a Linux server is off by more than five minutes from the LDAP server or the domain controller, the Kerberos authentication will fail and generate errors. A local firewall is unlikely to block authentication requests if the server can communicate over the network and is configured correctly. The users' passwords are not relevant if they are known-working LDAP credentials. The server has access to the LDAP host if it can communicate over the network and is configured correctly. References:
https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/6/html/identity_management_guide/kerberos_errors
https://www.ibm.com/docs/en/aix/7.2?topic=authentication-kerberos-time-synchronization
NEW QUESTION # 223
Users have noticed a server is performing below Baseline expectations. While diagnosing me server, an administrator discovers disk drive performance has degraded. The administrator checks the diagnostics on the RAID controller and sees the battery on me controller has gone bad. Which of the following is causing the poor performance on the RAID array?
- A. The controller has disabled the write cache.
- B. The drive array is corrupt.
- C. The controller cannot use all the available channels.
- D. The controller has lost its configuration.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The write cache is a feature of some RAID controllers that allows them to temporarily store data in a fast memory buffer before writing it to the disk drives. This improves the performance and efficiency of write operations, especially for random and small writes. However, if the battery on the controller goes bad, the controller may disable the write cache to prevent data loss in case of a power failure. This can degrade the disk drive performance significantly, as every write operation will have to wait for the disk drives to complete.
References:
https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-raid-controller-battery-learn-cyclehttps://w
NEW QUESTION # 224
A server administrator is taking advantage of all the available bandwidth of the four NICs on the server.
Which of the following NIC-teaming technologies should the server administrator utilize?
- A. Link aggregation
- B. Fail over
- C. Load balancing
- D. Fault tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical network links into one logical link with higher bandwidth and redundancy. It can take advantage of all the available bandwidth of the NICs (Network Interface Cards) on the server and provide load balancing and failover capabilities for network traffic. Verified References: [Link aggregation], [NIC]
NEW QUESTION # 225
An application server cannot communicate with a newly installed database server. The database server, which has static IP information, is reading the following output from ipconf ig:
The application server is reading the following output from ipconf ig:
Which of the following most likely contains an error?
- A. Subnet mask
- B. DHCP
- C. Gateway
- D. IP address
Answer: A
Explanation:
The subnet mask is most likely containing an error that prevents the application server from communicating with the newly installed database server. The subnet mask is a binary number that defines how many bits of an IP address are used for the network portion and how many bits are used for the host portion. The subnet mask determines which devices belong to the same network or subnet and can communicate directly with each other without routing or switching devices. The subnet mask of the database server is 255.255.O.O, which means that all 32 bits of its IP address are used for the network portion and none for the host portion, which is invalid and makes it unreachable by any other device on any network or subnet. The subnet mask of the application server is 255.O.O.O, which means that only 8 bits of its IP address are used for the network portion and 24 bits are used for the host portion, which is also uncommon and makes it incompatible with most networks or subnets. Reference: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.
NEW QUESTION # 226
A server administrator needs to harden a server by only allowing secure traffic and DNS inquiries. A port scan reports the following ports are open:
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:
The administrator should only allow secure traffic and DNS inquiries on the server, which means that only ports 22, 53, and 443 should be open. Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a command-line interface (CLI).
Port 53 is used for DNS (Domain Name System), which is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Port 443 is used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the data exchanged between a web browser and a web server.
NEW QUESTION # 227
A storage engineer responds to an alarm on a storage array and finds the battery on the RAID controller needs to be replaced. However, the replacement part will not be available for 14 days. The engineer needs to identify the impact of the failed battery on the system. Which of the following best describes the impact?
- A. The performance will not be impacted.
- B. The read and write performance will be impacted.
- C. The write performance will be impacted.
- D. The read performance will be impacted.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A RAID controller battery is used to protect the data in the cache memory of the controller in case of a power failure. The cache memory allows the controller to improve the write performance by buffering the data and writing it to the disk in an optimized way. However, if the battery fails, the controller will switch to write-through mode, which means it will write the data directly to the disk without caching. This will reduce the write performance and increase the latency of the system
NEW QUESTION # 228
A Linux administrator created a script that will run at startup. After successfully writing the script, the administrator received me following output when trying to execute the script:
Bash ./startup,sh:Permission denied
Which of the following commands would BEST resolve the error message?
- A. Chmod 466 startUp,sh
- B. Chmod 444 startup.sh
- C. Chmod +w startup.sh
- D. Chmod+x startup.sh
Answer: D
Explanation:
This is the command that would best resolve the error message "Bash ./startup.sh: Permission denied" when trying to execute a script on Linux. Chmod is a command that changes the permissions of files or directories on Linux. +x is an option that adds the execute permission to the file or directory for the owner, group, and others. startup.sh is the name of the script file that needs to be executed. By running chmod +x startup.sh, the technician grants execute permission to the script file and allows it to be run by any user. Chmod +w startup.sh would add write permission to the file, but not execute permission. Chmod 444 startup.sh would set read-only permission for all users, but not execute permission. Chmod 466 startup.sh would set read and write permission for the owner and write-only permission for group and others, but not execute permission.
References: https://www.howtogeek.com/437958/how-to-use-the-chmod-command-on-linux
NEW QUESTION # 229
An organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites. The organization wants to ensure the tapes are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. Which of the following actions should the organization perform?
- A. Have the facility inspect and inventory the tapes on a regular basis.
- B. Use the test equipment at the cold site to read the tapes.
- C. Have duplicate equipment available at the cold site.
- D. Retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The organization should retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them to ensure they are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. A cold site is a location that has space and power for backup equipment, but no actual equipment installed or configured. The organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites as a precaution in case of a disaster that affects its primary site. However, backup tapes can degrade over time due to environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, dust, or magnetic fields.
Therefore, the organization should periodically retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them on compatible equipment to verify their integrity and readability.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, Lesson 6.4, Objective 6.4
NEW QUESTION # 230
A user logs in to a Linux server and attempts to run the following command:
sudo emacs /root/file
However the user gets the following message:
User userid is not allowed to execute Temacs' on this server. Which of the following would BEST allow the user to find out which commands can be used?
- A. visudo I grep userid
- B. cat /etc/passwd
- C. userlist I grep userid
- D. sudo -1 -U userid
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the best command to find out which commands can be used by a user with sudo privileges because it lists the allowed and forbidden commands for a given user or role. The -l option stands for list, and the -U option specifies the user name. The output of this command will show what commands can be executed with sudo by that user on that server. References: https://www.sudo.ws/man/1.8.13/sudo.man.html
NEW QUESTION # 231
An administrator notices high traffic on a certain subnet and would like to identify the source of the traffic. Which of the following tools should the administrator utilize?
- A. Sniffer
- B. Nbtstat
- C. Anti-malware
- D. Port scanner
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.
References:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12
What is Application Consistent Backup and How to Achieve It2
Application-Consistent Backups3
NEW QUESTION # 232
Which of the following actions should the server administrator perform on the server?
- A. Close ports 80 and 443 and rerun the scan.
- B. Close port 3389 and rerun the scan.
- C. Close all ports and rerun the scan.
- D. Close ports 69 and 1010 and rerun the scan.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The server administrator should close port 3389 and rerun the scan. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which allows remote access and control of a server. RDP is vulnerable to brute-force attacks, credential theft, and malware infection. Closing port 3389 can prevent unauthorized access and improve the security of the server. The other ports are not as risky as port 3389 and can be left open for legitimate purposes. Reference: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.4: Given a scenario, implement proper environmental controls and techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 233
A systems administrator recently upgraded the memory in a server, and now the server does not turn on, and nothing is displayed on the screen.
Which of the following is the next step the administrator should take to diagnose the error without opening the machine?
- A. Call technical support.
- B. Perform a cold reboot.
- C. Check the monitor connection.
- D. Listen for POST code beeps.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A power-on self-test (POST) is a diagnostic process that runs when a server is turned on to check the basic functionality of the hardware components and report any errors or faults. A POST code is a series of beeps or flashes that indicate the status of the POST process and identify any problems that prevent the server from booting up. A POST code can be heard through a speaker or seen on a display attached to the server motherboard. A POST code is useful for diagnosing errors without opening the machine or using any software tools.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Lesson 5.1, Objective 5.1
NEW QUESTION # 234
A server technician is installing a Windows server OS on a physical server. The specifications for the installation call for a 4TB data volume. To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify the:
- A. volume is formatted as GPT
- B. volume is spanned across multiple physical disk drives
- C. volume is formatted as MBR
- D. hardware is UEFI compliant
Answer: A
Explanation:
GPT was developed to replace the limitations of MBR, and it is part of UEFI development to replace PC BIOS.
So the Hardware has to UEFI compatible for GPT to be fully effective.
NEW QUESTION # 235
A company needs a media server set up that provides the highest availability with a minimum requirement of at least 10TB. The company purchased five HDDs, each with a 4TB capacity. Which of the options would provide the highest fault tolerance and meet the requirements?
- A. RAID 5
- B. RAID 10
- C. RAID 6
- D. RAID 0
Answer: C
Explanation:
RAID 6 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. It can tolerate the failure of up to two disks without losing any dat a. RAID 6 can provide a minimum of 10TB of usable storage space with five 4TB disks, as the formula for calculating the RAID 6 capacity is (n-2) x Smin, where n is the number of disks and Smin is the smallest disk size. In this case, the RAID 6 capacity is (5-2) x 4TB = 12TB.
References:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 8
RAID Levels and Types Explained: Advantages and Disadvantages2
RAID Levels & Fault Tolerance3
NEW QUESTION # 236
A technician is monitoring a server and notices there is only one NIC plugged in. but the server has two. The NIC is oversaturated, and the technician would like to increase the available bandwidth. Which of the following solutions would be the BEST option to increase the speed of this NIC?
- A. Most recently used
- B. Link aggregation
- C. Active-active
- D. Heartbeat
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 237
Which of the following cloud models is BEST described as running workloads on resources that are owned by the company and hosted in a company-owned data center, as well as on rented servers in another company's data center?
- A. Community
- B. Public
- C. Hybrid
- D. Private
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is the best description of a hybrid cloud model because it combines both private and public cloud resources. A private cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a single organization and hosted in its own data center. A public cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a third- party provider and hosted in its data center. A hybrid cloud allows an organization to leverage both types of cloud resources depending on its needs and preferences. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us
/overview/what-is-hybrid-cloud-computing/
NEW QUESTION # 238
A server administrator receives the following output when trying to ping a local host:
Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
- A. DHCP
- B. Firewall
- C. DNS
- D. VLAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A firewall is a network device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow certain types of packets, ports, protocols, or IP addresses. The output of the ping command shows that the local host is unreachable, which means that there is no network connectivity between the source and the destination. This could be caused by a firewall that is blocking the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) packets that ping uses to test the connectivity.References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 2.2)
NEW QUESTION # 239
A server administrator is setting up a disk with enforcement policies on how much data each home share can hold. The amount of data that is redundant on the server must also be minimized. Which of the following should the administrator perform on the server? (Select two).
- A. Cloning
- B. Partitioning
- C. Deduplication
- D. Compression
- E. Disk quotas
- F. Provisioning
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Deduplication is a process that eliminates redundant data blocks and reduces the amount of storage space needed. Disk quotas are policies that limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a volume.
References:
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 8
Data Deduplication interoperability2
NEW QUESTION # 240
A security technician generated a public/private key pair on a server. The technician needs to copy the key pair to another server on a different subnet. Which of the following is the most secure method to copy the keys?
- A. FTP
- B. SCP
- C. HTTP
- D. USB
Answer: B
Explanation:
SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) is a protocol that allows users to securely transfer files between servers using SSH (Secure Shell) encryption. SCP encrypts both the data and the authentication information, preventing unauthorized access, interception, or modification of the files1. SCP also preserves the file attributes, such as permissions, timestamps, and ownership2.
NEW QUESTION # 241
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