Pass Your Exam Easily! CMMC-CCP Real Question Answers Updated on Feb 15, 2026
Actual Questions Answers Pass With Real CMMC-CCP Exam Dumps
Cyber AB CMMC-CCP Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 110
An employee is the primary system administrator for an OSC. The employee will be a core part of the assessment, as they perform most of the duties in managing and maintaining the systems. What would the employee be BEST categorized as?
- A. Applicable staff
- B. Analyzer
- C. Inspector
- D. Demonstration staff
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 111
A dedicated local printer is used to print out documents with FCI in an organization. This is considered an FCI Asset Which function BEST describes what the printer does with the FCI?
- A. Distribute
- B. Process
- C. Manage
- D. Encrypt
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding the Role of an FCI Asset in CMMCAdedicated local printer used to print Federal Contract Information (FCI)is considered anFCI Asset. UnderCMMC Level 1, FCI assets are required to meetbasic cybersecurity controlsto ensure that FCI is properlyprotected from unauthorized access.
Step-by-Step Breakdown:#1. Why "Process" is the Best Answer
* The printerreceives digital FCI, converts it into a physical format (paper), and outputs the document.
* This aligns with thedefinition of "processing" in CMMC, which includes:
* Transforming or modifying data
* Generating output (e.g., printed documents)
* Using systems to interpret or manipulate information
#2. Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:
* (A) Encrypt#
* Aprinter does not encryptFCI-it simply prints it. Encryption applies todigital storage and transmission, not printing.
* (B) Manage#
* Managing FCI typically refers togovernance, access control, and oversight, which is not the function of a printer.
* (D) Distribute#
* While a printed documentcould be distributed, theprinter itself is not responsible for distributing FCI-it only processes the data for output.
* CMMC Assessment Guide (Level 1)confirms thatprocessing FCI includes using systems that convert or transform information, such as printers.
* NIST SP 800-171definesprocessingas an action thatchanges or manipulates information, which applies to printing.
Final Validation from CMMC Documentation:
NEW QUESTION # 112
As defined in the CMMC-AB Code of Professional Conduct, what term describes any contract between two legal entities?
- A. Accord
- B. Alliance
- C. Union
- D. Agreement
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 113
While conducting a CMMC Assessment, an individual from the OSC provides documentation to the assessor for review. The documentation states an incident response capability is established and contains information on incident preparation, detection, analysis, containment, recovery, and user response activities. Which CMMC practice is this documentation attesting to?
- A. IR.L2-3.6.4: Incident Spillage
- B. IR.L2-3.6.1: Incident Handling
- C. IR.L2-3.6.3: Incident Response Testing
- D. IR.L2-3.6.2: Incident Reporting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding CMMC 2.0 Incident Response PracticesTheIncident Response (IR) domaininCMMC 2.0 Level
2aligns withNIST SP 800-171, Section 3.6, which defines requirements forestablishing and maintaining an incident response capability.
* The documentation provideddescribes an incident response capability that includes preparation, detection, analysis, containment, recovery, and user response activities.
* IR.L2-3.6.1specifically requires organizations toestablish an incident handling processcovering:
* Preparation
* Detection & Analysis
* Containment
* Eradication & Recovery
* Post-Incident Response
* B. IR.L2-3.6.2: Incident Reporting (Incorrect)
* Incident reporting focuses on reporting incidents to external parties (e.g., DoD, DIBNet),which isnot what the provided documentation describes.
* C. IR.L2-3.6.3: Incident Response Testing (Incorrect)
* Incident response testing ensures that the response process is regularly tested and evaluated, which isnot the primary focus of the documentation provided.
* D. IR.L2-3.6.4: Incident Spillage (Incorrect)
* Incident spillage specifically refers to CUI exposure or handling unauthorized CUI incidents, which isnot the scenario described.
* The correct answer isA. IR.L2-3.6.1: Incident Handling, as the documentationattests to the establishment of an incident response capability.
References:
CMMC 2.0 Level 2 Practices (NIST SP 800-171, Section 3.6)
CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) Guide
NEW QUESTION # 114
While conducting a CMMC Assessment, a Lead Assessor is given documentation attesting to Level 1 identification and authentication practices by the OSC. The Lead Assessor asks the CCP to review the documentation to determine if identification and authentication controls are met. Which documentation BEST satisfies the requirements of IA.L1-3.5.1: Identify system users. processes acting on behalf of users, and devices?
- A. List of unauthorized users that identifies their identities and roles
- B. Physical access policy that states. "All non-employees must wear a special visitor pass or be escorted."
- C. Procedures for implementing access control lists
- D. User names associated with system accounts assigned to those individuals
Answer: D
Explanation:
Understanding IA.L1-3.5.1 (Identification and Authentication Requirements)TheCMMC 2.0 Level
1practiceIA.L1-3.5.1aligns withNIST SP 800-171, Requirement 3.5.1, which mandates that organizationsidentify system users, processes acting on behalf of users, and devicesto ensure proper access control.
To comply with this requirement, anOrganization Seeking Certification (OSC)must maintain documentation that demonstrates:
A unique identifier (username) for each system user
Mapping of system accounts to specific individuals
Identification of devices and automated processes that access systems
This documentation directly satisfies IA.L1-3.5.1because it showshow system users are uniquely identified and linked to specific accountswithin the environment.
Alist of users and their assigned accountsconfirms that the organization has a structured method oftracking access and authentication.
It allows auditors to verify thateach user has a distinct identityand that access control mechanisms are properly applied.
A). Procedures for implementing access control lists (Incorrect)
While access control lists (ACLs) are relevant for authorization, they do notidentify users or devicesspecifically, making them insufficient as primary evidence for IA.L1-3.5.1.
B). List of unauthorized users that identifies their identities and roles (Incorrect) Identifying unauthorized users does not fulfill the requirement of trackingauthorizedusers, devices, and processes.
D). Physical access policy stating "All non-employees must wear a special visitor pass or be escorted" (Incorrect) This pertains tophysical security, not system-baseduser identification and authentication.
The correct answer isC. User names associated with system accounts assigned to those individuals, as thisdirectly satisfies the identification requirement of IA.L1-3.5.1.
References:
CMMC 2.0 Level 1 Practice IA.L1-3.5.1
NIST SP 800-171, Requirement 3.5.1
NEW QUESTION # 115
The Lead Assessor interviews a network security specialist of an OSC. The incident monitoring report for the month shows that no security incidents were reported from OSC's external SOC service provider. This is provided as evidence for RA.L2-3.11.2: Scan for vulnerabilities in organizational systems and applications periodically and when new vulnerabilities affecting those systems and applications are identified. Based on this information, the Lead Assessor should conclude that the evidence is:
- A. adequate because no security incidents were reported.
- B. adequate because it fits well for expected artifacts.
- C. inadequate because the OSC's service provider should be interviewed.
- D. inadequate because it is irrelevant to the practice.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 116
As defined in the CMMC-AB Code of Professional Conduct, what term describes any contract between two legal entities?
- A. Accord
- B. Alliance
- C. Union
- D. Agreement
Answer: D
Explanation:
Understanding the Definition of an Agreement in the CMMC-AB Code of Professional ConductTheCMMC- AB Code of Professional Conductdefines anagreementasany contract between two legal entities. This includes:
#Contracts between an OSC and a C3PAOfor CMMC assessments.
#Service agreements between cybersecurity providers and defense contractors.
#Any formal, legally binding arrangement related to CMMC compliance.
A). Union # Incorrect
Auniontypically refers to anorganization representing workersand is not used to describe acontractual relationship.
B). Accord # Incorrect
While anaccordcan mean an agreement, it isnot the standard legal term for a binding contractin CMMC documentation.
C). Alliance # Incorrect
Analliancerefers to astrategic partnership, but does not necessarily imply alegally binding contract.
D). Agreement # Correct
TheCMMC-AB Code of Professional Conductdefines anagreementas anylegally binding contract between two entities.
Why is the Correct Answer "D. Agreement"?
CMMC-AB Code of Professional Conduct
Defines"Agreement"as alegally binding contract between two parties.
CMMC-AB Licensed Training and Assessment Provider Guidelines
Requires that all engagementsbe governed by a formal agreement (contract) between the parties.
DFARS and CMMC Certification Contracts
States thatOSC-C3PAO relationships must be formalized through a legal agreement.
CMMC 2.0 References Supporting This Answer
NEW QUESTION # 117
During assessment planning, the OSC recommends a person to interview for a certain practice. The person being interviewed MUST be the person who:
- A. audits that practice.
- B. supports, audits, and performs that practice.
- C. funds that practice.
- D. implements, performs, or supports that practice.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 118
A C3PAO Assessment Plan document captures the names of the interviewees, the facilities that will utilized, along with estimated costs and schedule of the assessment. What part of the assessment plan is this?
- A. Select and develop the evidence collection approach.
- B. Identify resources and schedule.
- C. Select Assessment Team members.
- D. Identify and manage assessment risks.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 119
What is the BEST description of the purpose of FAR clause 52 204-21?
- A. It directs all covered contractors to install the cyber security systems listed in that clause.
- B. It describes all of the safeguards that contractors must take to secure covered contractor IS.
- C. It describes the minimum standard of care that contractors must take to secure covered contractor IS.
- D. It directs covered contractors to obtain CMMC Certification at the level equal to the lowest requirement of their contracts.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 120
A defense contractor needs to share FCI with a subcontractor and sends this data in an email. The email system involved in this process is being used to:
- A. generate FCI
- B. manage FCI.
- C. process FCI.
- D. transmit FCI.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Federal Contract Information (FCI) is defined inFAR 52.204-21as information provided by or generated for the government under contract but not intended for public release. UnderCMMC 2.0, organizations handling FCI must implementFAR 52.204-21 Basic Safeguarding Requirements, ensuring proper protection in processing, storing, and transmittingFCI.
Analyzing the Given OptionsThe question involves an email system that is used tosendFCI to a subcontractor.
Let's break down the possible answers:
* A. Manage FCI# Incorrect
* Managing FCI involves activities like organizing, storing, and maintaining access to FCI.
Sending an email does not fall under management; it is an act of transmission.
* B. Process FCI# Incorrect
* Processing refers to actively using FCI for operational or analytical purposes, such as analyzing, modifying, or computing data. Simply sending an email does not constitute processing.
* C. Transmit FCI# Correct
* Transmission refers to the act of sending FCI from one entity to another. Since the contractor is sendingFCI via email, this falls undertransmittingthe data.
Reference:NIST SP 800-171 Rev. 2, 3.1.3- "Control CUI (or FCI) by transmitting it using authorized mechanisms." D: Generate FCI# Incorrect Generating FCI means creating new contract-related information. The contractor is not creating FCI in this scenario but merely transmitting it.
Official References Supporting the Correct AnswerCMMC 2.0 Level 1 Practices (FAR 52.204-21 Basic Safeguarding Controls)
3.1.3: "Control CUI (or FCI) by transmitting it using authorized mechanisms." This confirms that email transmission falls under"transmitting" FCI, not managing or processing.
NIST SP 800-171 Rev. 2 (Protecting CUI in Non-Federal Systems)
Requirement 3.13.8: "Implement cryptographic methods to protect CUI when transmitted." While this applies more to CUI, FCI should also be protected during transmission, confirming that email is a form oftransmittinginformation.
ConclusionSince the contractor issendingFCI via email, the correct answer isC. Transmit FCI.This aligns withCMMC 2.0 Level 1practices underFAR 52.204-21andNIST SP 800-171, which emphasize securing transmitted data.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Who is responsible for identifying and verifying Assessment Team Member qualifications?
- A. CMMC-AB
- B. CMMC Marketplace
- C. C3PAO
- D. Lead Assessor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Understanding the Role of the Lead Assessor in CMMC AssessmentsTheLead Assessoris responsible for managing theAssessment Teamand ensuring that all team members meet the required qualifications as defined by theCMMC Accreditation Body (CMMC-AB)and theCybersecurity Maturity Model Certification (CMMC) Assessment Process (CAP) Guide.
Lead Assessor's Key Responsibilities (Per CAP Guide)
Verify team member qualificationsto ensure compliance with CMMC-AB guidelines.
Assignappropriate assessment tasksbased on team members' expertise.
Ensure that theassessment is conducted in accordance with CMMC procedures.
Why Not the Other Options?
A). C3PAO (Certified Third-Party Assessor Organization)#Incorrect
AC3PAOis responsible fororganizing assessmentsand ensuring their execution, but itdoes not verify individual team member qualifications-that responsibility belongs to theLead Assessor.
B). CMMC-AB (CMMC Accreditation Body)#Incorrect
TheCMMC-ABestablishestraining and certification requirements, but itdoes not verify individual assessment team members-that responsibility is given to theLead Assessor.
D). CMMC Marketplace#Incorrect
TheCMMC Marketplacelists authorizedC3PAOs, Registered Practitioners (RPs), and Certified Professionals (CCPs)butdoes not verify assessment team qualifications.
CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) Guide- Defines theLead Assessor's responsibilityfor verifying assessment team qualifications.
CMMC-AB Certification Guide- Specifies that the Lead Assessor must ensure all assessment team members meet CMMC-AB qualification standards.
Why the Correct Answer is "C. Lead Assessor"?Relevant CMMC 2.0 References:Final Justification:Since theLead Assessor is responsible for verifying assessment team member qualifications, the correct answer isC.
Lead Assessor.
NEW QUESTION # 122
A dedicated local printer is used to print out documents with FCI in an organization. This is considered an FCI Asset Which function BEST describes what the printer does with the FCI?
- A. Distribute
- B. Process
- C. Manage
- D. Encrypt
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 123
A C3PAO has completed a Limited Practice Deficiency Correction Evaluation following an assessment of an OSC. The Lead Assessor has recommended moving deficiencies to a POA&M. but the OSC will remain on an Interim Certification. What is the MINIMUM number of practices that must be scored as MET to initiate this course of action?
- A. 100 practices
- B. 80 practices
- C. 110 practices
- D. 88 practices
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 124
What is the LAST step when developing an assessment plan for an OSC?
- A. Obtain and record commitment to the assessment plan.
- B. Update the assessment plan and schedule as needed
- C. Perform certification assessment readiness review.
- D. Verify the readiness to conduct the assessment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Last Step in Developing an Assessment Plan for an OSCDeveloping anassessment planinvolves:
Defining the assessment scope(e.g., systems, networks, locations).
Planning test activities(e.g., interviews, evidence review, technical testing).
Verifying the OSC's readiness(e.g., ensuring required documents are available).
Updating the assessment plan and schedule as needed.
Final Step: Obtaining and recording the OSC's commitment to the assessment plan.
Why is obtaining commitment the last step?#Theassessment cannot proceed unless the OSC agrees to the finalized plan.
#This ensuresOSC leadership understands the scope, timeline, and responsibilities.
#TheC3PAO must document this commitmentto formalize the agreement.
A). Verify the readiness to conduct the assessment # Incorrect
Readiness verification happens earlierin the planning process, not as the last step.
B). Perform certification assessment readiness review # Incorrect
Areadiness review is conducted before finalizing the plan, not at the very end.
C). Update the assessment plan and schedule as needed # Incorrect
Updating the plan happens before commitment is obtained; it is not the final step.
D). Obtain and record commitment to the assessment plan # Correct
This is the final step before conducting the assessment. The OSC must formally agree to the plan.
Why is the Correct Answer "D. Obtain and record commitment to the assessment plan"?
CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) Document
States that theOSC must confirm agreement to the assessment plan before execution.
CMMC-AB Guidelines for C3PAOs
Specifies thatfinalizing the assessment plan requires documented commitment from the OSC.
CMMC Assessment Guide
Outlines thatassessments cannot begin without formal approval of the plan.
CMMC 2.0 References Supporting This Answer.
Final Answer #D. Obtain and record commitment to the assessment plan.
NEW QUESTION # 125
The director of sales, in a meeting, stated that the sales team received feedback on some emails that were sent, stating that the emails were not marked correctly. Which training should the director of sales refer the sales team to regarding information as to how to mark emails?
- A. C3PAO CUI Introduction to Marking
- B. NARA CUI Introduction to Marking
- C. FBI CUI Introduction to Marking
- D. CMMC-AB CUI Introduction to Marking
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 126
As part of CMMC 2.0, the change to Level 1 Self-Assessments supports "reduced assessment costs" allows all companies at Level 1 (Foundational) to:
- A. opt out of CMMC Assessments.
- B. to conduct self-assessments.
- C. pay no more than $500.00 for their annual assessment.
- D. have assessment costs reimbursed by the DoD.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which words summarize categories of data disposal described in the NIST SP 800-88 Revision 1. Guidelines for Media Sanitation?
- A. Clear redact, destroy
- B. Clear, overwrite, purge
- C. Clear, purge, destroy
- D. Clear, overwrite, destroy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding NIST SP 800-88 Rev. 1 and Media SanitizationTheNIST Special Publication (SP) 800-88 Revision 1, Guidelines for Media Sanitization, provides guidance onsecure disposalof data from various types of storage media to prevent unauthorized access or recovery.
* Clear
* Useslogical techniquesto remove data from media, making it difficult to recover usingstandard system functions.
* Example:Overwriting all datawith binary zeros or ones on a hard drive.
* Applies to:Magnetic media, solid-state drives (SSD), and non-volatile memorywhen the media isreused within the same security environment.
* Purge
* Usesadvanced techniquesto make data recoveryinfeasible, even with forensic tools.
* Example:Degaussinga magnetic hard drive orcryptographic erasure(deleting encryption keys).
* Applies to:Media that is leaving organizational control or requires a higher level of assurance than "Clear".
* Destroy
* Physicallydamages the mediaso that data recovery isimpossible.
* Example:Shredding, incinerating, pulverizing, or disintegratingstorage devices.
* Applies to:Highly sensitive data that must be permanently eliminated.
* B. Clear, Redact, Destroy (Incorrect)- "Redact" is a term used for document sanitization,notdata disposal.
* C. Clear, Overwrite, Purge (Incorrect)- "Overwrite" is a method within "Clear," but it isnot a top-level categoryin NIST SP 800-88.
* D. Clear, Overwrite, Destroy (Incorrect)- "Overwrite" is a sub-method of "Clear," but "Purge" is missing, making this incorrect.
* The correct answer isA. Clear, Purge, Destroy, as these are thethree official categoriesof data disposal inNIST SP 800-88 Revision 1.
References:
NIST SP 800-88 Rev. 1 - Guidelines for Media Sanitization
CMMC 2.0 Security Practices Related to Media Disposal(Aligned with NIST guidance)
NEW QUESTION # 128
What is the BEST document to find the objectives of the assessment of each practice?
- A. CMMC Appendices
- B. CMMC Assessment Guide Levels 1 and 2
- C. CMMC Glossary
- D. CMMC Assessment Process
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Understanding the Role of Assessment Objectives in CMMC 2.0Theassessment objectivesfor each CMMC practice define thespecific criteriathat an assessor uses to evaluate whether a practice is implemented correctly. These objectives break down each control into measurable components, ensuring a structured and consistent assessment process.
To determine where these objectives are best documented, we need to consider theofficial CMMC documentation sources.
2. Why Answer Choice "D" is Correct - CMMC Assessment Guide Levels 1 and 2TheCMMC Assessment Guide (Levels 1 & 2)is theprimary documentthat provides:
#The detailedassessment objectivesfor each practice
#A breakdown of the expectedevidence and implementation details
#Step-by-stepassessment criteriafor assessors to verify compliance
Each CMMC practice in the Assessment Guide is aligned with the correspondingNIST SP 800-171 or FAR
52.204-21 control, and the guide specifies:
How to assess compliancewith each practice
What evidenceis required for validation
What stepsan assessor should follow
#Reference from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide - Level 2 (Aligned with NIST SP 800-171)explicitly states:
"Each practice is assessed based on defined assessment objectives to determine if the practice is MET or NOT MET." CMMC Assessment Guide - Level 1 (Aligned with FAR 52.204-21)provides similar objectives tailored for foundational cybersecurity requirements.
Thus,CMMC Assessment Guide Levels 1 & 2 are the BEST sources for assessment objectives.
3. Why Other Answer Choices Are IncorrectOption
Reason for Elimination
A). CMMC Glossary
#The glossary only defines terminology used in CMMC but does not provide assessment objectives.
B). CMMC Appendices
#The appendices contain supplementary details, but they do not comprehensively list assessment objectives for each practice.
C). CMMC Assessment Process (CAP)
#While the CAP document describes the assessmentworkflow and methodology, it does not outline the specific objectives for each practice.
4. ConclusionTo locate thebest reference for assessment objectives, theCMMC Assessment Guide Levels 1 &
2are the most authoritative and detailed sources. They contain step-by-step assessment criteria, ensuring that practices are evaluated correctly.
#Final Answer
D). CMMC Assessment Guide Levels 1 and 2
NEW QUESTION # 129
In late September. CA.L2-3.12.1: Periodically assess the security controls in organizational systems to determine if the controls are effective in their application is assessed. Procedure specifies that a security control assessment shall be conducted quarterly. The Lead Assessor is only provided the first quarter assessment report because the person conducting the second quarter's assessment is currently out of the office and will return to the office in two hours. Based on this information, the Lead Assessor should determine that the evidence is;
- A. insufficient, and re-rate the audit finding after a quarter two assessment report is examined.
- B. insufficient, and rate the audit finding as NOT MET.
- C. sufficient, and re-rate the audit finding after a quarter two assessment report is examined.
- D. sufficient, and rate the audit finding as MET
Answer: B
Explanation:
CA.L2-3.12.1:"Periodically assess the security controls in organizational systems to determine if the controls are effective in their application." This control is derived fromNIST SP 800-171, Requirement 3.12.1, which mandates organizations to performregular security control assessmentsto ensure compliance and effectiveness.
Evidence Review & Assessment Timeline:
The organization's procedureexplicitly statesthat security control assessments must be conductedquarterly (every three months).
Since the Lead Assessor only has access to thefirst-quarter report, the second-quarter report is missing at the time of assessment.
CMMC Audit Requirements:
For an assessor to rate a control asMET, sufficient evidence must bereadily availableat the time of evaluation.
Since the second-quarter report is missingat the time of assessment, the Lead Assessorcannot verify compliancewith the organization's own stated frequency of assessment.
Why the Answer is NOT A, C, or D:
A (Sufficient, MET)#Incorrect: The control assessment frequency is quarterly, but the evidence for Q2 is not available. Compliance cannot be confirmed.
C (Sufficient, and re-rate later)#Incorrect: If evidence is not available during the audit, the controlcannot be rated as MET initially. There is no provision in CMMC 2.0 to "conditionally" pass a control pending future evidence.
D (Insufficient, but re-rate later)#Incorrect: Once a control is ratedNOT MET, it staysNOT METuntil a re- assessment is conducted in a new audit cycle. The assessordoes not adjust ratings retroactivelybased on future evidence.
Control Reference: CA.L2-3.12.1Assessment Criteria & Justification for the Correct Answer CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) Guide (2023):
"For a control to be rated as MET, the assessed organization must provide sufficient evidence at the time of the assessment."
"If evidence is missing or incomplete, the finding shall be rated as NOT MET." NIST SP 800-171A (Security Requirement Assessment Guide):
"Evidence must be current, relevant, and sufficient to demonstrate compliance with stated periodicity requirements." Since the procedure mandatesquarterly assessments, missing evidence means compliancecannot be validated.
DoD CMMC Scoping Guidance:
"Assessors shall base their determination on the evidence provided at the time of assessment. If required evidence is not available, the control shall be rated as NOT MET." Official CMMC 2.0 References Supporting the Answer Final Conclusion:Thecorrect answer is Bbecause the required evidence (the second-quarter report) is not availableat the time of assessment, making itinsufficientto validate compliance. The Lead Assessormust rate the control as NOT METin accordance with CMMC 2.0 assessment rules.
NEW QUESTION # 130
What service is the MOST comprehensive that the RPO provides?
- A. Education services
- B. Assessment services
- C. Consulting services
- D. Training services
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding the Role of a Registered Provider Organization (RPO)ARegistered Provider Organization (RPO)is an entity recognized by theCMMC Accreditation Body (CMMC-AB)to provideconsulting servicesto organizations seekingCMMC certification.
Key Functions of an RPO#Consulting servicesto help companies prepare for CMMC assessments.
#Guidance on security controlsrequired for compliance.
#Assistance with documentation, policy development, and gap analysis.
#Preparation for third-party CMMC assessmentsbutdoes not conduct official CMMC assessments(this is the role of a C3PAO).
* Consulting servicesare thebroadest and most comprehensivefunction of an RPO.
* RPOs do not conduct assessments(eliminating option D).
* Training and educationmay be part of consulting but arenot the primary function(eliminating A and B).
* Consulting includes training, guidance, documentation assistance, and security readiness, making it themost comprehensive service offered.
Why "Consulting Services" is the Correct Answer?Breakdown of Answer ChoicesOption Description Correct?
A: Training services
#Incorrect-RPOs may provide training, but this isnot their primary function.
B: Education services
#Incorrect-Similar to training, butnot the most comprehensive service.
C: Consulting services
#Correct - The core function of an RPO is consulting, which includes various readiness services.
D: Assessment services
#Incorrect-Only aC3PAO (Certified Third-Party Assessment Organization)can conductofficial CMMC assessments.
* TheCMMC-AB RPO Programdefines an RPO as aconsulting organization that assists companies in preparing for CMMC certificationbutdoes not perform assessments.
Official References from CMMC 2.0 DocumentationFinal Verification and ConclusionThe correct answer isC. Consulting services, asRPOs primarily provide advisory and readiness supportto organizations preparing forCMMC compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which term describes "the protective measures that are commensurate with the consequences and probability of loss, misuse, or unauthorized access to. or modification of information"?
- A. Adaptive security
- B. Adequate security
- C. Advanced security
- D. Adopted security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding the Concept of Security in CMMC 2.0CMMC 2.0 aligns with federal cybersecurity standards, particularlyFISMA (Federal Information Security Modernization Act), NIST SP 800-171, and FAR 52.204-
21. One key principle in these frameworks is the implementation of security measures that are appropriate for the risk level associated with the data being protected.
The question describes security measures that are proportionate to therisk of loss, misuse, unauthorized access, or modificationof information. This matches the definition of"Adequate Security." A). Adopted security# Incorrect The term"adopted security"is not officially recognized in CMMC, NIST, or FISMA. Organizations adopt security policies, but the concept does not directly align with the question's definition.
B). Adaptive security# Incorrect
Adaptive securityrefers to adynamic cybersecurity modelwhere security measures continuously evolve based on real-time threats. While important, it does not directly match the definition in the question.
C). Adequate security#Correct
The term"adequate security"is defined inNIST SP 800-171, DFARS 252.204-7012, and FISMAas the level of protection that isproportional to the consequences and likelihood of a security incident.
This aligns perfectly with the definition in the question.
D). Advanced security# Incorrect
Advanced securitytypically refers tohighly sophisticated cybersecurity mechanisms, such as AI-driven threat detection. However, the term does not explicitly relate to the concept of risk-based proportional security.
FISMA (44 U.S.C. § 3552(b)(3))
Definesadequate securityas"protective measures commensurate with the risk and potential impact of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction of information." This directly matches the question's wording.
DFARS 252.204-7012 (Safeguarding Covered Defense Information and Cyber Incident Reporting) Mandates that contractors apply"adequate security"to protect Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI).
NIST SP 800-171 Rev. 2, Requirement 3.1.1
States that organizations must "limit system access to authorized users and implement adequate security protections to prevent unauthorized disclosure." CMMC 2.0 Documentation (Level 1 and Level 2 Requirements) Requires that organizationsapply adequate security measures in accordance with NIST SP 800-171to meet compliance standards.
Analyzing the Given OptionsOfficial References Supporting the Correct AnswerConclusionThe term" adequate security"is the correct answer because it is explicitly defined in federal cybersecurity frameworks asprotection proportional to risk and potential consequences. Thus, the verified answer is:
NEW QUESTION # 132
The CMMC Level 2 assessment methods include examination and can include:
- A. policies, procedures, security plans, penetration tests, and security requirements.
- B. specific hardware, software, or firmware safeguards employed within a system.
- C. observation of system backup operations, exercising a contingency plan, and monitoring network traffic.
- D. documents, mechanisms, or activities.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 133
An organization thatmanufactures night vision cameras is looking for help to address the gaps identified in physical access control systems. Which certified individual should they approach for implementation support?
- A. CCA of the C3PAO performing the assessment
- B. DoD Contract Official of the organization performing the assessment
- C. RP of an organization not part of the assessment
- D. Practitioner of the organization performing the assessment LTP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 134
During a Level 2 Assessment, the OSC has provided an inventory list of all hardware. The list includes servers, workstations, and network devices. Why should this evidence be sufficient for making a scoring determination for AC.L2-3.1.19: Encrypt CUI on mobile devices and mobile computing platforms?
- A. The inventory list does not specify mobile devices.
- B. The inventory list does not include Bring Your Own Devices.
- C. The interviewee attested to encrypting all data at rest.
- D. The DoD has accepted an alternative safeguarding measure for mobile devices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the context of a Cybersecurity Maturity Model Certification (CMMC) Level 2 Assessment, specific practices must be evaluated to ensure compliance with established security requirements. One such practice is AC.L2-3.1.19, which mandates the encryption of Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) on mobile devices and mobile computing platforms.
Step-by-Step Explanation:
* Requirement Overview:
* Practice AC.L2-3.1.19 requires organizations to "Encrypt CUI on mobile devices and mobile computing platforms." This ensures that any CUI accessed, stored, or transmitted via mobile devices is protected through encryption, mitigating risks associated with data breaches or unauthorized access.
* Assessment of Provided Evidence:
* During the assessment, the Organization Seeking Certification (OSC) provided an inventory list encompassing servers, workstations, and network devices. Notably, this list lacks any mention of mobile devices or mobile computing platforms.
* Implications of the Omission:
* The absence of mobile devices in the inventory suggests that the OSC may not have accounted for all assets that process, store, or transmit CUI. Without a comprehensive inventory that includes mobile devices, it's challenging to verify whether the OSC has implemented the necessary encryption measures for CUI on these platforms.
* Assessment Determination:
* Given the incomplete inventory, the evidence is insufficient to make a definitive scoring determination for practice AC.L2-3.1.19. The OSC must provide a detailed inventory that encompasses all relevant devices, including mobile devices and computing platforms, to demonstrate compliance with the encryption requirements for CUI.
References:
CMMC Model Overview Version 2.13, which outlines the requirements for practice AC.L2-3.1.19.
Ensuring a complete and accurate inventory is a critical step in the assessment process, as it forms the basis for evaluating the implementation of security controls across all relevant assets within the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 135
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